Beyond the bounds of time
Amulek describes the atonement as "an infinite and eternal sacrifice" (Alma 34:10). Nephi adds that it is "infinite for all mankind" (2 Nephi 25:16; emphasis added). Let's not get too theoretical here, but I think we will agree - and you mathematicians know well - that there are multiple levels of infinity. The level or kind of infinity that really caught my attention this week was mentioned in a segment written by Tad R. Callister on the BYU Religious Study Center's website under "Teaching the atonement." He writes that the atonement is "Infinite in time, both prospectively and retroactively," meaning that it redeems all mankind who lived before it was performed and all those who would live after it was performed. My question is, how could the atonement redeem all the people who lived before it even happened?
To back up Elder Callister, I'll share two scriptures. First, Jarom 1:11 said that the prophets taught the people to "believe in him [Christ] to come as though he already was." Now, the wording is a dab weird, but it sounds like it means that the people were taught to believe in Christ as if He had already come. In a similar tone, Mosiah 3:13 says that "whosoever should believe that Christ should come, the same might receive a remission of their sins...even as though he [Christ] had already come among them."
This is where it gets crazy. Apparently, before Christ was even born, people could be forgiven for believing in Him. Just believing that He would come would cause a remission of sins to happen for the believer. Now answer me this - how? How could they enjoy the benefits of forgiveness before the price was paid for their sins? What if Jesus didn't come? The future holds a lot of uncertainty. What if He decided the suffering was too much, the sacrifice too great, and He opted out of being the Savior? That's a scary thought. As Abinadi said in his time, imagine "...If Christ had not come into the world, speaking of things to come as though they had already come, there could have been no redemption [and] there could have been no resurrection" (Mosiah 16:6-7). As Abinadi goes on to affirm, the truth is that Christ did come into the world and He did pay the price for our sins by performing an infinite atonement so that all mankind could benefit, even those who lived before Him. But once again, how?
This concept isn't as foreign as it sounds. We participate in similar processes on the daily. Take your house, for example. Whether or not you did, let's say you bought the house/place you live in. Other than you awesome people who paid cash for your homes, most of us end up getting a mortgage. This is essentially a loan that allows you to enjoy the benefits of living in a house that you haven't actually paid for yet, and all of this because you've promised to pay it off. Sound familiar?
Although you probably weren't foreordained to buy your house, you promised to pay for it so you get to live in it before it's paid off. Based on all this, someone's word must be worth something. Jesus promised He would pay for our sins, so the people who lived before that payment was made could still be forgiven. Jesus was foreordained to carry out the atonement, He covenanted to do so, and His word is as good as gold. If He says He'll do something, it's as good as done.
When it all comes down to it, Christ's atonement had to be infinite, because God's love is infinite. We're all His children and He loves all of us, no matter what time we may live in. As Alma said to his son, Corianton:
"is not a soul at this time as precious unto God as a soul will be at the time of his coming? Is it not as necessary that the plan of redemption should be made known unto this people as well as unto their children?" (Alma 39:17-18).
The answer to those questions is yes.
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